> Jesus didn't just cook up that phrase
> about "coming in the clouds of
> heaven" for that occasion with the
> disciples. It came from Daniel 7:13ff.

Maybe, maybe not.

There is nothing to prove that the two verses are even related at all.
They may be, they do have some similar wording, but I wouldn't build any doctrines on that supposition.

But even if they are related, the verse in Daniel still describes the Lord coming in the clouds to take His throne.

A genuine "coming". Not a "presence".

It is a world shaking event.
Not some warm fuzzy inner awakening.

> Lastly, it's not "all the nations of
> the earth" that mourn for what happens
> at the parousia, it's "all the TRIBES
> of the LAND" (probably the tribes of
> Israel itself).

The tribes of Israel itself?????

As I remember, even in the time of Christ, there were no longer any "tribes" in the land.

The last vestige of tribes disappeared with the Babylonian captivity.

Even prior to that, there were only three tribes left. Judah, Benjamin, and Levi.

But after the captivity they were all just considered "Jews" and most didn't even bother to keep track of their tribal lineage anymore.

Even the name Israel had no political meaning at the time of Christ and was just used as a vague reference to the totality of the Hebrew nation, of which 90% was missing in action.

So any reference to "all the tribes of the land" would be pretty meaningless rhetoric if it was intended to mean the tribes of the Hebrew nation don't you think?

In my opinion, the KJV translators were pretty much right on the money in translating that phrase as "all the tribes of the earth".